I've read up on this a little bit but would like some more input, perhaps by someone who's had experience of it...in their research I mean
I have a marriage in 1909, bride is a widow & groom states, bachelor. The son of this marriage, in 1939 just prior to his wedding, changes his name by deed poll (I have the gazette announcement on this) reverting back to his mother's name by her previous marriage & giving himself a completely new Christian name. To all intents & purposes it gives the impression that he has totally disassociated himself from his birth father although he is clearly named on his marriage certificate and is deceased.
Family story's lead us to believe that there was no love loss between father & son (we don't know the reasons) his mother kept the name from this marriage.
Which brings us to the question, why did he so dramatically change his name? One theory of mine is that perhaps his 'father' had entered into a bigamous marriage with his mother & once found out his son wanted no more to do with him as, technically, he was illegitimate.
What would have happened in such circumstances in the early 20c? Would there have been court proceedings?
Ideas & input greatfully received,
jane