I have been working on the Boltons of Woodridge, 16th & 17th century generations, and have come across the mention of a Grant of Arms to my 10th g-gfa, Thomas Bolton, by William Camden, the then Clarenceux King of Arms, in several published works, e.g. this one:
https://archive.org/details/familyofboltonin00bolt/page/n29. (Most report 1615, although in one source, Suffolk Manorial Families, it gives the year as 1610 rather than 1615). The grant is based on Thomas being descended from the Boltons of Bolton in Lancashire (although I have been so far unable to find a direct link from his father, who was from Suffolk too - separate story).
There is a description and I found an illustration of it by googling. No problems there.
But this is the thing. According to other sources I have been using to derive genealogical information (although not all consistent) others have drawn the conclusion that Thomas is the 3rd eldest son, with William and then Robert ahead of him. By 1610, William is dead, but Robert lives until 1635, according to this chart in the Visitations of England and Wales (top right):
https://archive.org/details/visitationofengl32howa/page/54.
Does anyone know how likely it is that this coat of arms would have been bestowed upon the second surviving son? What are the rules about this? (I am just wondering if one can draw a conclusion that Thomas was in fact older than Robert, or whether there might be some other reason why it was not granted to Robert.)
Edit: Or could it just be that Thomas applied for it himself and that's why he got it?