If only the mother is listed on the baptism record in a parish register, is the child NECESSARILY illegitimate? Or is there an alternative explanation that I'm unaware of?
I've always assumed that even if the mother HAD been married and the father had died between the conception and birth of the child, that the parish register entry would still give the name of the father, but modified with a "deceased" or the like.
I have such a record from Tamworth, Staffordshire, in 1796, but there is no marginalia stating "illegitimate" or "bastard" - just "James son of Elizabeth Endsor".