It has always been my assumption that my relative served in both World Wars. WW1 is not in question as I have lots of documentary eveidence for him, however all I have from WW2 is a couple of telegram type greetings messages, which only give his first name (so it is remotely possible to be from another man with the same name) in May 1943 and November 1943. The reason i am having doubts, is that there is no evidence anywhere to suggest that he fought in the War, and during the time he would have been away, he was being listed as householder in the street directories here, and also as the license holder for the pub he ran. He even moved to another pub in 1943, while he was away at War with himself given as the lisence holder.
It is possible that his wife and sons could have managed the pub without him, however would it be usual to carry on giving his name as though he were still present, or am I looking in the wrong direction, and he probably never went to War at all? My only real source would be his service records, if they exist however , they will cost me £30 and I only want to go there as a last resort. The other possibility is that he had home leave, and the pub transfer was completed while he was home, which would have co-incided with the North Africa campaign finishing, and before the invasion of Italy. Any ideas would be very much appreciated.
Dale