Did my great grandparents divorce!

[Michmoor]

Good morning everyone,

Been a while since I've been on here, decided to do some more research with the recent release of the 1921 census.

I've been trying to establish exactly why my great-grandmother suddenly relocated with my grandmother to Manchester from Birmingham in the 1900s.  To cut a long story short, 1901 all happy families, 1911, great grandad's in Stourbridge Workhouse, great grandmother in Manchester and my grandmother joins her later.  1917 great grandmother marries in Manchester, on the marriage certificate she has called herself a widow, but my great grandfather is not deceased.

It appeared my grandfather died in Stourbridge Workhouse in 1927, however, the 1921 census has opened up more questions, it seems my grandfather possibly married again or is at least with another partner, sometime after 1917, and had a family, his new wife and two children (both aged under four), all listed as living together in 1921.

So were they divorced?  Or decided not to bother, haven't had any luck in establishing exactly what happened, any pointers would be appreciated.

Thanks in advance.

[nanny jan]

This might help:

https://www.nationalarchives.gov.uk/help-with-your-research/research-guides/divorce/

[KGarrad]

Divorce was rare, and expensive before WW1.
The Matrimonial Causes Act 1923, introduced as a Private Member's Bill, enabled either partner to petition for divorce on the basis of their spouse's adultery (previously, only the man had been able to do this).
A further Act in 1937 offered additional grounds for divorce: cruelty, desertion and incurable insanity.

[BumbleB]

Not sure that you are absolutely correct KG.  I have a copy of the 1873 divorce papers where the wife brought charges of adultery and cruelty against her husband.  I'm assuming that the wife was able to finance the divorce proceedings due to the fact that her father (a Beerseller) stated in his Will of 1870 that she should receive the rents and profits from his property in Bradford, for her own absolute use.

[nanny jan]

My 2xgt. aunt divorced her husband in 1904; she is described on the papers as a "poor person" so must have had help with the costs.

[KGarrad]

Not sure that you are absolutely correct KG.  I have a copy of the 1873 divorce papers where the wife brought charges of adultery and cruelty against her husband.  I'm assuming that the wife was able to finance the divorce proceedings due to the fact that her father (a Beerseller) stated in his Will of 1870 that she should receive the rents and profits from his property in Bradford, for her own absolute use.

I quoted from UK Parliament:
https://www.parliament.uk/business/publications/research/olympic-britain/housing-and-home-life/split-pairs/

Before 1923 a wife could not sue for divorce on the grounds of adultery alone - there had to be another matrimonial offence.
The 1923 Matrimonial Causes Act changed this, and a husband's adultery was sufficient cause.

[BumbleB]

Ah, OK, my relative had a second reason for the divorce proceedings - cruelty!

[AntonyMMM]

My 2xgt. aunt divorced her husband in 1904; she is described on the papers as a "poor person" so must have had help with the costs.

There was a "poor person's procedure" or "in forma pauperis", a bit like an early version of legal aid. The case papers are marked to show those cases.